You (100bb) have Ad Kc in MP at a 6max game. UTG (100bb) limps, you raise to 5xBB, Button (100bb) calls, UTG calls.
Three to the flop (pot ~15bb), which is:
Ac 4s 6s
UTG checks, you lead out for 12bb, Button folds, UTG calls.
On to the turn (pot~ 36bb)
8h UTG checks, you bet 25bb, he raises all-in.
We fold. One pair is not good here. A draw does this about never. We have to bet this turn because we can't let spades draw, and we need value from worse A's, but now that he raises, we can rule out worse A's and draws.
However, to slightly alter Isura's example, lets say we have Ac As, same pf action as before and the flop (pot~15bb) comes down:
Kc 2h 2d UTG checks, we bet 12bb, Button calls, UTG folds.
the turn (pot ~36bb) comes:
Jd We bet 25bb, Button raises all in.
Here, I think we should call. We are very likely to see KJ here, as well as AK or KQ. Occasionally we see a random 2, but we are ahead of his range more often than not.
Basically, the whole point of the "Baluga theorem", as I see it, is to strongly reevaluate one-pair hands facing a turn raise.
Three to the flop (pot ~15bb), which is:
Ac 4s 6s
UTG checks, you lead out for 12bb, Button folds, UTG calls.
On to the turn (pot~ 36bb)
8h UTG checks, you bet 25bb, he raises all-in.
We fold. One pair is not good here. A draw does this about never. We have to bet this turn because we can't let spades draw, and we need value from worse A's, but now that he raises, we can rule out worse A's and draws.
However, to slightly alter Isura's example, lets say we have Ac As, same pf action as before and the flop (pot~15bb) comes down:
Kc 2h 2d UTG checks, we bet 12bb, Button calls, UTG folds.
the turn (pot ~36bb) comes:
Jd We bet 25bb, Button raises all in.
Here, I think we should call. We are very likely to see KJ here, as well as AK or KQ. Occasionally we see a random 2, but we are ahead of his range more often than not.
Basically, the whole point of the "Baluga theorem", as I see it, is to strongly reevaluate one-pair hands facing a turn raise.
By BalugaWhale
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